That made me instantly realize it, thank you so much for help!!!!To make it easier to see, let \(m=n!\) and we have:
[MATH]m(m-1)!=m![/MATH]
Got it, thanks for your help!!!Observe that [MATH]n![/MATH] differs from [MATH](n-1)![/MATH] by a factor of [MATH]n[/MATH], such that [MATH]n(n - 1)! = n![/MATH]
How can you leverage this fact to prove the original statement?