Try it yourself and post back your work
You are a liar as I am still here.I have been on this forum for just over 10 years and have decided to not be a helper anymore as long as this logistic_guy is still around. I enjoyed my time here, but as I said it's time to say goodbye.
Steven
You can also prove it purely by equivalence transformations (no conditional proof). Use only the truth-functional laws for [imath]\to,\neg,\land,\lor[/imath].Given the following equivalence :
[(p^q)=>r] <=>[p=>(q=>r)]
Can we prove it formaly without using the law of conditional proof (deduction theorem)?