renegade05
Full Member
- Joined
- Sep 10, 2010
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- 260
Question reads: Find the singular points of the following ODE and classify it as either regular or irregular.
\(\displaystyle cos(x)y''+y'+cot(x)y=0\)
So, I let \(\displaystyle p(x) = 1/cos(x)\) and know that this will have a singular point at \(\displaystyle x=\pi/2+n\pi, n\epsilon Z\)
I like the limit as \(\displaystyle x->\pi/2+n\pi\) of p(x) I find that if n is even the limit goes to -1, and if n is odd the limit goes to 1.
I know this is like beginner calculus stuff.. but I can't seem to draw the connection... Does this limit diverge, meaning that this is an IRREGULAR singular point? Because the limit DNE. or is it a REGULAR singular point because 1 and -1 are both finite values?
thanks!:cool:
\(\displaystyle cos(x)y''+y'+cot(x)y=0\)
So, I let \(\displaystyle p(x) = 1/cos(x)\) and know that this will have a singular point at \(\displaystyle x=\pi/2+n\pi, n\epsilon Z\)
I like the limit as \(\displaystyle x->\pi/2+n\pi\) of p(x) I find that if n is even the limit goes to -1, and if n is odd the limit goes to 1.
I know this is like beginner calculus stuff.. but I can't seem to draw the connection... Does this limit diverge, meaning that this is an IRREGULAR singular point? Because the limit DNE. or is it a REGULAR singular point because 1 and -1 are both finite values?
thanks!:cool: