Yes, it should. Sorry about that.
Of course, with a very simple example like this it is simpler to solve the equations without using the Laplace transform.
If you differentiate the first equation, x'+ y= t again, you have x''+ y'= 1. From the second equation, y'+ 4x= 0, y'= -4x so that equation is x''- 4x= 1. Solve that, then solve for y= t- x'. You can use that to check your answer.