Your question is "How does \(\displaystyle \lim_{a\to \infty}\left[ln\left(\frac{x}{x+ 1}\right)\right]_1^a= 0.69\). The answer to that is "it doesn't!". That limit is ln(2) which is approximately 0.69.
In the first place, \(\displaystyle \left[ln\left(\frac{x}{x+ 1}\right)\right]_1^a\) means \(\displaystyle ln\left(\frac{a}{a+1}\right)- \ln\left(\frac{1}{1+1}\right)= ln\left(\frac{2a}{a+1}\right)\). Further, ln(x) is continuous for all positive x so this limit is the same as \(\displaystyle ln\left(\lim_{a \to\infty}\frac{2a}{a+ 1}\right)\).
To find \(\displaystyle \lim_{a \to\infty}\frac{2a}{a+ 1}\), divide both numerator and denominator by a: \(\displaystyle \frac{2a}{a+ 1}= \frac{2}{1+\frac{1}{a}}\) and, now, as a goes to infinity, 1/a goes to 0 so that limit is \(\displaystyle \frac{2}{1}= 2\). \(\displaystyle ln\left(\lim_{a \to\infty}\frac{2a}{a+ 1}\right)= ln(2)\).