At least one soution in a no continuous

eleni24

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Hey guys
The exercise in which I'm facing a problem is the following:
f(x)= 1/x ,x<0
ln(e^x+x) ,x<=0

It asks you to show that for every value of a>0 ,the equation

(e^f(x)-f(x))/x +f(x)/(x-a)=0
has at least one solution. My problem is that the function is not continuous at 0 so any theorem i can think of doesn't work. Any idea?
Thanks in advance
 
Last edited:
Hey guys
The exercise in which I'm facing a problem is the following:
f(x)= 1/x ,x<0
ln(e^x+x) ,x<=0

Hi, to make the question clear, I assume that this is f(x)...

[math]f(x)=\begin{cases} \frac{1}{x} & x<0\\ ln(e^{x}+x) & \color{red}x\geqslant 0 \end{cases}[/math]
 
I suspect that Cubist's correction is spot on . However, there is no \(\large\bf{a}\) in the correction as there is in the PO.
 
I don't see a problem here, for the function definition anyway. The value of a is only a feature of the equation that needs to be solved.

-Dan
 
Hi, to make the question clear, I assume that this is f(x)...

[math]f(x)=\begin{cases} \frac{1}{x} & x<0\\ ln(e^{x}+x) & \color{red}x\geqslant 0 \end{cases}[/math]
Yes this is f(x). I tried to paste it from word but it didn't work out.
 
I don't see a problem here, for the function definition anyway. The value of a is only a feature of the equation that needs to be solved.

-Dan
Exactly. The letter a is just a parameter. It doesn't have to do with the function.
 
I suspect that Cubist's correction is spot on . However, there is no \(\large\bf{a}\) in the correction as there is in the PO.
Letter a is just a paremeter given in the equation that needs to be solved. Not a part of the function.
 
To make it clear, to correct f(x) type is what Cubist posted, while the equation we have to prove that has at least one solution in (0,a) is
in the file I attached here.
.(My fault, I forgot to tell you the interval in which we are searching for the solution). Hope I made it all clear. If any mistake please tell me.
 

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@eleni24 have you noticed that the equation always uses f(x). It does NOT use f(x+1), nor f(y) etc. Only f(x).

What does this tell us? Does this mean that it's possible to rewrite the equation, twice, once for the case when x<0 and once for x≥0?
 
To make it clear, to correct f(x) type is what Cubist posted, while the equation we have to prove that has at least one solution in (0,a) is
in the file I attached here.
.(My fault, I forgot to tell you the interval in which we are searching for the solution). Hope I made it all clear. If any mistake please tell me.

The interval (0,a) seems important; doesn't it allow you to consider only positive x, and therefore ignore the negative case in the definition of f?
 
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