why can't this happen, i don't know. but i think we don't care because we got what we want an odd denmator
Both.
If [imath] 2\,|\,s\cdot s' [/imath] then [imath] 2\,|\,s [/imath] or [imath] 2\,|\,s' [/imath] (by definition of a prime number) and since neither [imath] s [/imath] nor [imath] s' [/imath] are even, this is impossible.
And, yes, we do not care. We look at all possible representations of rational numbers. [imath] \dfrac{2}{6}=\dfrac{1}{3}, [/imath] and one is in [imath] S [/imath] and the other one is not. We do not consider "numbers", we consider their representations as quotients. If we would consider quotients as equivalence classes, i.e. [imath] \dfrac{2}{6}=\dfrac{1}{3}, [/imath] then we would run into problems, since the definition of [imath] S [/imath] is related to a particular representation. Otherwise, we would have to define [imath] S [/imath] more carefully, e.g.
[math] S=\left\{q\in \mathbb{Q}\,|\,\exists \,r,s\in \mathbb{Z} \, : \,q=\dfrac{r}{s}\text{ and }s\text{ is odd }\right\} \text{ or }S=\left\{\dfrac{r}{s}\,|\,r/s\text{ is already canceled and }s\text{ is odd }\right\}[/math].
i'm not sure but i guess it mean it is \(\displaystyle S = \{ \ \}\)
This is only a notation. I have written a logical statement about what this notation means: All rational numbers are not in [imath] S. [/imath]
i don't understand this well but i think you're trying to say it's absolutely \(\displaystyle S\) isn't empty
As soon as we find an element in [imath] S [/imath] it cannot be empty.
i think that scientist who discover this formula was disappointed when he find out when \(\displaystyle n > 40\) some numbers won't be prime
I am pretty sure that Euler knew that right from the beginning. However, there are a lot of prime numbers even beyond [imath] 40, [/imath] e.g. [imath] 43^2-43+41 [/imath] and [imath] 44^2-44+41 [/imath] are both prime!
i'll assume we're agree i proof (A) is a subring. for (B) do i make \(\displaystyle a = \frac{r}{s}\) and i say \(\displaystyle s\) is even
\(\displaystyle \frac{r}{s}\frac{r'}{s'} = \frac{rr'}{ss'}\) i'm sure even x even = even
\(\displaystyle \frac{r}{s} - \frac{r'}{s'} = \frac{rs' - r's}{ss'}\) i get also even domator
is this mean (B) is also a subring?
Yes, with the logical implications I mentioned above. Your definition is a bit too sloppy since it distinguishes between [imath] \dfrac{1}{3} [/imath] and [imath] \dfrac{2}{6}. [/imath] If you use canceled quotients instead, then you'll have an additional property that must be checked!