I'm going through Wu's book "Understanding Numbers" and there's a chapter on the Euclidean Algorithm. An example is:
[math]gcd(3008, 1344)[/math]
It proceeds with the following:
[math]3008 = (2 \times 1344) + 320[/math][math]1344 = (4 \times 320) + 64[/math][math]320 = (5 \times 64) + 0[/math]
Indicating that [imath]gcd(3008, 1344) = 64[/imath]. It provides a reference to an earlier Lemma which is helpful in understanding why the remainder is also divisible by a common factor:
[math]gcd(3008, 1344)[/math]
It proceeds with the following:
[math]3008 = (2 \times 1344) + 320[/math][math]1344 = (4 \times 320) + 64[/math][math]320 = (5 \times 64) + 0[/math]
Indicating that [imath]gcd(3008, 1344) = 64[/imath]. It provides a reference to an earlier Lemma which is helpful in understanding why the remainder is also divisible by a common factor:
Lemma 32.1. Suppose A, B, C are integers which satisfy A = B + C, and suppose a nonzero integer x
divides any two of A, B, and C. Then x must also divide the third.
It then states:divides any two of A, B, and C. Then x must also divide the third.
The key observation is that gcd(3008, 1344) is the same as the gcd of the two smaller numbers 1344 and 320.
This is so because the set of all common divisors of 3008 and 1344 happens to coincide with
the set of all common divisors of 1344 and 320 (and therefore the biggest common divisor is the same for either set).
I understand the algebraic part of the algorithm and that it works, but my questions are 1) Even if we know that 64 is "A" factor of both 3008 and 1344, how do we know that it's "THE BIGGEST" factor of the two? And 2) In the excerpt immediately above it states, "This is so because the set of all common divisors of 3008 and 1344 happens to coincide with the set of all common divisors of 1344 and 320 (and therefore the biggest common divisor is the same for either set)." Emphasis on "all" in that sentence. How do we know that ALL common divisors are the same for both pairs of numbers? I find it difficult to grasp how ALL common divisors can be the same for both pairs. How can we be sure that there isn't a larger divisor of 3008 and 1344 than there is for 1344 and 320 in the more general case of [imath]gcd(a, b)[/imath]. I get there isn't for these two numbers specifically, but more generally how can we prove this?This is so because the set of all common divisors of 3008 and 1344 happens to coincide with
the set of all common divisors of 1344 and 320 (and therefore the biggest common divisor is the same for either set).