mathsuser314159
New member
- Joined
- Jan 20, 2021
- Messages
- 4
I have seen some fourier examples using the equation for a0 as 1/L x the integral of f(x) and other times the equation has been for a0 1/2L x the integral of f(x). Please can someone explain why this is? I know when you have an even function you multiply the integral by 2 and halve the limits but I'm unsure about this. Any help would be greatly appreciated.