Hello, I'm stuck on a fairly straightforward eigenvalue problem. For
y'' + 2y' + λy = 0; y(0) = y(1) = 0
(a) Show that λ = 1 is not an eigenvalue.
(b) Show that there is no eigenvalue λ such that λ < 1
(c) Show that the nth positive eigenvalue is λn = n2π2 + 1
I've already shown (a) and (b). On (c), I used the characteristic equation and assumed λ > 1 to find that
y = e-x (c1 cos((1-λ)1/2 x) + c2 sin((1-λ)1/2 x))
From there, I found c1 = 0, and e-1 c2 sin((1-λ)1/2) = 0
For a nontrivial solution, I set sin((1-λ)1/2) = 0
So λ = -n2π2 + 1
Why am I off by a negative? There's probably something simple I'm missing, but I can't see it.
y'' + 2y' + λy = 0; y(0) = y(1) = 0
(a) Show that λ = 1 is not an eigenvalue.
(b) Show that there is no eigenvalue λ such that λ < 1
(c) Show that the nth positive eigenvalue is λn = n2π2 + 1
I've already shown (a) and (b). On (c), I used the characteristic equation and assumed λ > 1 to find that
y = e-x (c1 cos((1-λ)1/2 x) + c2 sin((1-λ)1/2 x))
From there, I found c1 = 0, and e-1 c2 sin((1-λ)1/2) = 0
For a nontrivial solution, I set sin((1-λ)1/2) = 0
So λ = -n2π2 + 1
Why am I off by a negative? There's probably something simple I'm missing, but I can't see it.