Inverse Fourier Transform for sine and cosine

wolly

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Hi I want to find the inverse of the sine and cosine functions in the Fourier Transform

[math]f(x)=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{\pi}} \int_{0}^{\infty} F_{C}(ω)cos(ωt)dω[/math]
and

[math]f(x)=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{\pi}} \int_{0}^{\infty} F_{C}(ω)sin(ωt)dω[/math]
How can these 2 get this result?
 

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Hi I want to find the inverse of the sine and cosine functions in the Fourier Transform
I think that you mean here that you want to find the inverse of a function using the sine and cosine Fourier Transforms.

How can these 2 get this result?
What do you mean?

In the picture, they want to find the inverse Fourier transform of \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{1 + t^2}\) using the cosine Fourier Transforms.
 
I think that you mean here that you want to find the inverse of a function using the sine and cosine Fourier Transforms.


What do you mean?

In the picture, they want to find the inverse Fourier transform of \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{1 + t^2}\) using the cosine Fourier Transforms.
What I mean îs how did [math]\frac{1}{\pi}[/math] and [math]\frac{2}{\pi}[/math] appear in that integral ?when the inverse of Fourier functions are posted above.
 
In the picture, they want to find the inverse Fourier transform of \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{1 + t^2}\) using the cosine Fourier Transforms.
And another thing
How did This function transform into

[math]g(z)= \frac{e^{izx}}{z^2+1}[/math]?
 
In my book This exercise îs solved by Jordan lemma and I Don't know how to apply it1000030966.jpg
 
What I mean îs how did [math]\frac{1}{\pi}[/math] and [math]\frac{2}{\pi}[/math] appear in that integral ?when the inverse of Fourier functions are posted above.
\(\displaystyle \frac{2}{\pi}\) is part of the inverse sine or cosine Fourier transform.

If you have \(\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\), you can take half the domain and double the integral, so \(\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} = 2\int_{0}^{\infty}\ \) Or \(\displaystyle \ 2\int_{0}^{\infty} = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \)


This is why \(\displaystyle \frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\infty} = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \)

And another thing
How did This function transform into

[math]g(z)= \frac{e^{izx}}{z^2+1}[/math]?
If the domain is \(\displaystyle -\infty < z < \infty\), use the general Fourier transform:

\(\displaystyle f(x) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(z) e^{izx} \ dz\)


If you want to work in the domain is \(\displaystyle 0 < z < \infty\), and \(\displaystyle f(z)\) is an even function, you can use the cosine Fourier transform:

\(\displaystyle f(x) = \frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\infty} f(z) \cos(zx) \ dz = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(z) \cos(zx) \ dz\)


If you want to work in the domain is \(\displaystyle 0 < z < \infty\), and \(\displaystyle f(z)\) is an odd function, you can use the sine Fourier transform:

\(\displaystyle f(x) = \frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\infty} f(z) \sin(zx) \ dz = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(z) \sin(zx) \ dz\)


Now let us apply the idea on \(\displaystyle f(z) = \frac{1}{z^2 + 1}\). To find the inverse Fourier transform of this function, we usually use the general Fourier transform.

\(\displaystyle f(x) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{z^2 + 1} e^{izx} \ dz\)

We know that \(\displaystyle f(z) = \frac{1}{z^2 + 1}\) is an even function, so we have the option to solve it by the cosine Fourier transform on the domain \(\displaystyle 0 < z < \infty\).

\(\displaystyle f(x) = \frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{z^2 + 1} \cos(zx) \ dz = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{z^2 + 1} \cos(zx) \ dz = e^{-x}\)

But this answer is only for \(\displaystyle x > 0\). What about \(\displaystyle x<0\)? Therefore the full answer of the transform on \(\displaystyle -\infty < z < \infty\) and \(\displaystyle -\infty < x < \infty\) is:

\(\displaystyle \mathcal{F^{-1}}\left\{\frac{1}{z^2 + 1}\right\} = \begin{cases}e^{-x} & x > 0\\e^{x} & x < 0\end{cases} = e^{-|x|}\)
 
In my book This exercise îs solved by Jordan lemma and I Don't know how to apply it
I will explain to you the idea of the Jordan lemma. If you solve integrals in complex analysis, you use a contour (path). This contour splits the original integral into two or more integrals. One of these integrals involves an arc (usually an arc of a semicircle). The Jordan lemma says that the integral that involves the arc \(\displaystyle = 0\). That's the whole idea.

Now let us apply it step by step.

[math]g(z)= \frac{e^{izx}}{z^2+1}[/math]?
First step is that we have to define our complex function.

Let our complex function be \(\displaystyle g(z)= \frac{e^{izx}}{z^2+1}\).

We realize that this function has two poles \(\displaystyle z = i\) and \(\displaystyle z = -i\)

Step 2. We will choose a contour. Let our contour be \(\displaystyle \gamma\). We will let this contour contains only one of the poles. What about the top part of a semicircle of radius \(\displaystyle R\) and \(\displaystyle R > 1\). This means that the pole \(\displaystyle z = i\) will be inside the contour (the semicircle) and we can compute its residue.

This is our contour: We will walk from \(\displaystyle z = -R\) to \(\displaystyle z = R\) (real line), then from \(\displaystyle z = R\) back to \(\displaystyle z = -R\) through the semicircular arc which we will call \(\displaystyle \gamma_R\). As you can see, our contour is perfectly closed.

Then, our integral is:

\(\displaystyle \int_{\gamma} g(z) \ dz = \int_{-R}^{R} g(z) \ dz + \int_{\gamma_R} g(z) \ dz\)


Step 3. Apply the residue theorem.

\(\displaystyle \int_{\gamma} g(z) \ dz = 2\pi i \cdot \text{Res}(g,i)\)

This means that:

\(\displaystyle \int_{-R}^{R} g(z) \ dz + \int_{\gamma_R} g(z) \ dz = 2\pi i \cdot \text{Res}(g,i)\)


Step 4. Apply the limit to both sides.

\(\displaystyle \lim_{R \rightarrow \infty}\int_{-R}^{R} g(z) \ dz + \lim_{R \rightarrow \infty} \int_{\gamma_R} g(z) \ dz = \lim_{R \rightarrow \infty} 2\pi i \cdot \text{Res}(g,i)\)


Step 5. Use the Jordan lemma.

\(\displaystyle \lim_{R \rightarrow \infty} \int_{\gamma_R} g(z) \ dz = 0\)

Then,

\(\displaystyle \lim_{R \rightarrow \infty}\int_{-R}^{R} g(z) \ dz = \lim_{R \rightarrow \infty} 2\pi i \cdot \text{Res}(g,i)\)

Or

\(\displaystyle \lim_{R \rightarrow \infty}\int_{-R}^{R} g(z) \ dz = 2\pi i \cdot \text{Res}(g,i)\)


Step 6. Calculate the residue.

\(\displaystyle \text{Res}(g,i) = \frac{e^{-x}}{2i}\)

Then,

\(\displaystyle \lim_{R \rightarrow \infty}\int_{-R}^{R} g(z) \ dz = \pi e^{-x}\)

Or

\(\displaystyle \int_{\gamma} g(z) \ dz = \lim_{R \rightarrow \infty}\int_{-R}^{R} g(z) \ dz = \pi e^{-x}\)

Or

\(\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{e^{izx}}{z^2 + 1} \ dz = \pi e^{-x}\)

Since we have chosen the contour as the upper half of the semicircle, we were actually calculating only \(\displaystyle x > 0\).

In other words, we were calculating the cosine Fourier transform.

Then,

\(\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{\cos(xz)}{z^2 + 1} \ dz = \text{Re}\left(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{e^{izx}}{z^2 + 1} \ dz\right) = \pi e^{-x}\)

Or

\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{\cos(xz)}{z^2 + 1} \ dz = e^{-x}\)

The same result we have obtained in post #\(\displaystyle 8\).

Now if you wanna calculate \(\displaystyle x < 0\) using the Jordan lemma, you do the same calculations we have done but you choose your contour to be the bottom part of the semicircle.

You will get: \(\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{e^{izx}}{z^2 + 1} \ dz = \pi e^{x}\)

And by combining the two solutions together, you will get again:

\(\displaystyle f(x) = \mathcal{F^{-1}}\left\{\frac{1}{z^2 + 1}\right\} =\begin{cases}e^{-x} & x > 0\\e^{x} & x < 0\end{cases} = e^{-|x|}\)
 
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