Why? What test indicated that it is a convergent series?
It was a joke.
One way to show that \(\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}\) diverges is to use the integral test. But before we use this test, we have to check a few things. If they are satisfied, then we can use the test.
\(\displaystyle \bold{1}\)
Continuous?
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{n}\) is continuous for all \(\displaystyle n \geq 1\)
\(\displaystyle \bold{2}\)
Positive?
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{n} \geq 0\) for all \(\displaystyle n \geq 1\)
\(\displaystyle \bold{3}\)
Decreasing?
\(\displaystyle \frac{d}{dx}\frac{1}{x} = -\frac{1}{x^2}\)
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{n}\) is decreasing for all \(\displaystyle n \geq 1\)
Then the theorem says:
if \(\displaystyle \int_{1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x} \ dx\) converges, then \(\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}\) converges.
Or
if \(\displaystyle \int_{1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x} \ dx\) diverges, then \(\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}\) diverges.
Using the
Test.
\(\displaystyle \int_{1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x} \ dx = \ln x \bigg|_{1}^{\infty} = \ln \infty - \ln 1 = \infty - 0 = \infty\)
Then, \(\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}\) diverges beautifully.


