Hello, there. I'm not really sure whether this thread belongs here, so I apologize if it's in the wrong place. I'm having a hard time making progress with this:
Prove by induction that for all natural numbers n, n≥4:
2n ≥ n2
I'm fine with the base step. Then, I make the assumption that it's true for n=k.
But trying to go from 2k ≥ k2 to:
2k+1 ≥ (k+1)2 is really baffling me. I've tried multiplying both sides by 2, giving:
2k+1 ≥ 2k2
Would it be sufficient to show that 2k2 ≥ (k+1)2, I wonder? And if so, how would I go about doing that? If not, I'm completely lost.
Prove by induction that for all natural numbers n, n≥4:
2n ≥ n2
I'm fine with the base step. Then, I make the assumption that it's true for n=k.
But trying to go from 2k ≥ k2 to:
2k+1 ≥ (k+1)2 is really baffling me. I've tried multiplying both sides by 2, giving:
2k+1 ≥ 2k2
Would it be sufficient to show that 2k2 ≥ (k+1)2, I wonder? And if so, how would I go about doing that? If not, I'm completely lost.