Separation of variables

SilverKing

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Hi everyone,

I've the following problem:

Determine the general solution and the particular solution of e^(x) cos(y) dy + (1+e^(x)) sin(y) dx = 0 when y(0)=0

Solution:

Separating the variables:

e^(x)/(1+e^(x)) dx + sin(y) / cos(y) dy = 0

Integrating:

ln|1+e^(x)| - ln|cos(y)| = ln |c| *

ln |1+e^(x)/cos(y) = ln|c|

1+e^(x) = c|cos(y)| ---> The general solution

Substituting x=0, y=0:

c=2

Which leads to:

1+e^(x) = 2|cos(y)| ---> The particular solution


I've understood it all, but what confusing me is the equation *. Why the integration of 0 is ln c and not just c?
 
Hi everyone,

I've the following problem:




I've understood it all, but what confusing me is the equation *. Why the integration of 0 is ln c and not just c?

That is done for convenience.

ln(C1) = c = another constant
 
But that's will affects on the final answer. So, can I assume anything for the arbitrary constant that would help me simplifying the final answer?
 
But that's will affects on the final answer. So, can I assume anything for the arbitrary constant that would help me simplifying the final answer?

Yes - as long as it is a constant - ec, sin(c), ln(c), kc, ck, c+k, c*k, c/k - everything is a fair game as long as it does not contain a variable,
 
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You have \(\displaystyle e^x cos(y)dy+ (1+ e^x)sin(y)dx= 0\) and then \(\displaystyle \frac{e^x}{1+ e^x}dx+ \frac{sin(y)}{cos(y)}dy= 0\).

The second equation does NOT follow from the first. You have the fractions upside down.

Dividing through by \(\displaystyle e^x\), \(\displaystyle cos(y)dy+ \frac{1+ e^x}{e^x}sin(y)dx= 0\). Dividing through by sin(y), \(\displaystyle \frac{cos(y)}{sin(y)}dy+\frac{1+ e^x}{e^x}dx= 0\).

IF the original equation \(\displaystyle e^x cos(y)dx+ (1+ e^x)sin(y)dy= 0\) THEN what you have would be correct.

(Note that the locations of dy and dx have switched)
 
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