Pls, someone should just enlighten me on this. Is it [the] same way we find [the] area of a triangle if [the] vertices are from origin and when they are not from origin?
Pls, someone should just enlighten me on this. Is it [the] same way we find [the] area of a triangle if [the] vertices are from origin and when they are not from origin?
However, the area of a triangle is dependent on the relative positions of the vertices. It is NOT dependent on the absolute positions of the vertices (just like length of a line segment). Therefore it does NOT matter whethere one of the vertices is located at the origin or not.
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